Neurology Question 2 | Practice Questions for MRCP Part 1 Exam.
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Question:
A 55 year old male has been referred as there has been a change in his personality over the last few years. He has been sexually inappropriate, unable to plan, and his appetite has increased. There is nil of note on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
B) Alzheimers disease
C) Frontotemporal dementia
D) New Variant CJD
E) Frontal Tumour
Neurology Question 2 | Practice Questions for MRCP Part 1 Exam kaplan 意味 | |
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